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Full Version: God Can Deliver the Damned From Hell?
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QuisUtDeus Wrote:OK, this is like 20 questions.

Can you state what exactly was "astonishing" about it?

I do think it would be an astonishing assertation if it were alone, but the logic leading up to it was there, and it was continued on (and if they completed the article using the teachings of the Church, it would be shown to be false)
Well, we know God is omnipotent. Hell is, in the end, the result of a state of Free Will permantized by death. We know theologians say God could theoretically force someone's will, too. Does He ever? It is universally thought not. Especially not AFTER death (if He was going to do it, why not just do it before?)

But the question involves speculation about individual cases and possibilities, and as such is beyond the scope of Revelation (mere possibilities being infinite with an omnipotent God), and thus not necessarily heresy to believe it personally (though what evidence you'd have to suspect this for a particular case, I dont know).

Also, just remember the old story of Pope St Gregory raising the emperor Trajan from the dead to baptize him. In the Middle Ages this was just taken for granted as a case of a soul being miraculous freed from hell (using the ordinary means of salvation even!). Does the legend hold up upon deeper theological scrutiny? Not really. But its wide acceptance by Saints and theologians...shows it is not strictly speaking a heretical thought.
7HolyCats Wrote:Well, we know God is omnipotent. Hell is, in the end, the result of a state of Free Will permantized by death. But we know God CAN theoretically force someone's will, too. Does He ever? It is not thought so. But that was not positively revealed.

Sometimes God is quite compelling for certain people. St Paul, Jonas and others were given not so subtle hints, but I do not think that means there was a violation of free will, just a strong assertations of God's will.
StevusMagnus Wrote:
QuisUtDeus Wrote:I don't know that it shows it to be false but that we can proceed with moral certitude that it does not happen since it is the consensus of theologians.

Since when has the "consensus of theologians" provided us with moral certitude? Please quote the Council that defined this axiom. Only the Magisterium can give us moral certitude on anything, not theologians.

I don't know that a Council defined it.  It is a premise of Catholic theology:

http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/03539b.htm

Quote:It is, then,