07-11-2012, 09:00 PM
(07-11-2012, 02:23 PM)Scriptorium Wrote: [ -> ](07-11-2012, 02:13 PM)Ray M Facere Wrote: [ -> ]I assume you're talking about the natural birth explanation ... which Ott gives a bit of evidence for by citing Mt. 1:25 ; Luke 2:7, and then quickly pivots to saying, "But the Fathers, with few exceptions, vouch for the miraculous character of the birth." He goes on to say that it is difficult to show that the Fathers were not simply mistaken on scientific understanding, but then he cites specific magisterial interventions to push the scales towards a conclusion. Finally, as I said, I believe he concludes the entire topic with a thesis in favor of the miraculous birth on the basis of the "omnipotence of God."
Okay, then why does he say "The dogma merely asserts the fact of the continuance of Mary's physical virginity without determining more closely how this is to be physiologically explained." If he concludes that there is more than this mere fact being asserted, then why contradict himself? Why say also "the question is whether in so doing they attest a truth of Revelation or whether they wrongly interpret a truth of Revelation, that is, Mary's virginity, from an inadequate natural scientific point of view. It seems hardly possible to demonstrate that the dignity of the Son of God or the dignity of the Mother of God demands a miraculous birth." Why even discuss these matters? I am sure you've seen other dogmas in which he doesn't discuss much at all, like the male priesthood. So why create doubts in the reader if his line of thought is that the matter is decided? That's why I read it as undecided in the explanation of how our Lady remained a virgin during the birth.
Ray's exactly right.
To answer your questions, Ott is not contradicting himself, nor is he saying what you think he is saying. I agree he is confusing, but he's often confusing, and this is mainly because he is writing in such an incredibly compressed manner. He is NOT a good source for laymen!
To understand it, place firmly in your mind that the dogma is the miraculous birth of Our Lord. This is what is meant by "virginity" in this context. Then proceed to read the whole thing with that as the "key".
In the part you are focussing on, Ott is not questioning that "virginity" in birth must be a physiological fact (for it cannot be anything else - the marriage act is not in view, and neither is the vow of virginity, or anything else at all).
He is merely pointing out that the dogma (the miraculous birth) cannot be inferred from the general concept "virginity". Ott accepts that he can't "demonstrate that the dignity of the Son of God or the dignity of the Mother of God demands a miraculous birth."
What he is doing is a purely technical procedure, seeking for the correct foundation of the dogma. Obviously the real proof of any dogma is the argument from authority. Our Lady's physical perfection was totally untouched by this birth. De fide. He looks to authority to establish the dogma, and that's why he proceeds to list so many, and such weighty, authorities, showing thereby that this dogma (the miraculous birth of Our Lord, which is another way of saying that Our Lady remained a virgin in that birth) is de fide by the general promulgation of doctrine.
Make sense now?