03-23-2015, 02:50 AM
Before V2, or at any time , were children born of those who were divorced and remarried without an annullment considered to be illegitimate, and for what purposes? I ask because it is important, not idle curiousity. My understanding was that legitimacy was determined by the civil authorities, not by the Church.
And fwiw, the situation in question occurred in the US. Maybe Catholic natuons had differing laws?
Thanks very very much!
And fwiw, the situation in question occurred in the US. Maybe Catholic natuons had differing laws?
Thanks very very much!