Delicate question about sexuality (warning: graphic language)
Thank you everyone for these first answers.

Quote:I think the main thing is not to intentionally do anything to separate the unitive from the procreative aspects of the marriage act.

The idea is not to do something that would prevent procreation. Even though it is, in some way, related to the suject of this thread, I mentioned onanism and oral sex in order to help the readers to understand my background. My concern is more about how to behave regarding a certain body fluid that is intrinsically connected to procreation. In this case, should my wife and I be very careful or can we just focus on what pleases us, no matter how risqué it can be, in order to express our mutual love?

Quote:If I understand you your asking about if a couple completes the sex act with the man ending inn the proper way and then immediatly starting a new sex act before the women has had a chance to use the bathroom? 

Yes, this is one of the situations that I had in mind. That is why I insisted upon the fact that manual and oral stimulation could occur as foreplay of this second marital act.

Quote:No, it is not, but I will say it is immoral for the wife to "stimulate" herself to orgasm. This is masturbation and it should be the husband who does this if she has not climaxed yet.

Sex must always be a unitive, cooperative act where climaxing is a result from the stimulation of the other spouse.

Thank you for your contribution, Austenbosten. This is not the subject of this thread but I respectfully disagree with you. It is preferable if it is the husband who stimulate the wife. Nonetheless, it is not immoral if she does it herself and it is not masturbation. Masturbation is a selfish act and in our case it is part of a real marital act. My opinion is based on saint Alphonsus Liguori or Fr. Marie-Michel Labourdette, O.P., to name only two well-known theologians. 

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RE: Delicate question about sexuality (warning: graphic language) - by Ludovicus - 04-16-2018, 05:01 AM

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