Was Jesus perfect in his human deeds?
#38
(11-25-2010, 06:36 PM)Walty Wrote:
(11-25-2010, 06:23 PM)Vetus Ordo Wrote:
(11-25-2010, 06:16 PM)Walty Wrote:
(11-25-2010, 06:05 PM)Vetus Ordo Wrote:
(11-25-2010, 05:58 PM)Walty Wrote: His strictly divine intelligence (the uncreated intellect) did indeed possess knowledge of all things (both actual and potential), but there was never a communication between his divine (uncreated) and human (created) intellects.

Never? How so?

Well, according to my understanding of the teaching of Thomas and Garrigou-Lagrange, the Father communicates His divine knowledge to the Son via both the beatific vision and infused knowledge.  The summation of that knowledge is all things actualized in reality.  The further knowledge, held by the divine alone, is the knowledge of all things in reality as well as all things in potentiality.  The Son receives all knowledge of things in actuality from the Father then, and, it appears to me, receives no knowledge from His own uncreated intellect.  Moreover, the human mind simply cannot contain all knowledge of things in potential simply because the finite cannot hold the infinite.

I understand.

It's the same reasoning regarding his human nature being subordinate to the divine nature, correct? When trying to explain those scriptural passages where Jesus appears inferior in knowledge to the Father, this is what I've read.

Yes.  It's actually really interesting stuff.  The main problem are the passages which seem to show Christ predicting the Judgment before the passing of His own generation. It appears that the only answer to that problem is that Christ was speaking in some symbolic or metaphorical way. People often cite the passages in which Jesus claims that He does not know the hour of the Judgment Day, but the answer that Thomas and Lagrange give to this is that, as you mentioned, He was merely ignorant of this in His acquired knowledge alone and was perhaps not permitted by the Father to reveal the hour which He does know via infused knowledge and the direct vision of God.

I remember reading a good explanation about this once but I can't really remember right now, my memory is not as good as it used to be.

This apparent "error" of Our Lord is one of the accusations that the enemies of the Church, like of E.P. Sanders and others, do. Nevertheless, I have the distinct feeling that I once read a good explanation of that passage. It's only natural that after 2,000 years of biblical exegesis the Church has something valuable to say about it. Can you point it out to me?
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Re: Was Jesus perfect in his human deeds? - by Vetus Ordo - 11-25-2010, 06:50 PM



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