The translation of "pro multis" as "for many" vs. "for all"

[Historian]

These are just some general reflections.  What do y'all think?

I think there is a reason why it is in Latin. It is to be understood as it was meant when it was written.

In English, "all" or "many" can be used if this understanding is clear, and "many" is the most literal and most used, prior to certain texts, translation.