The translation of "pro multis" as "for many" vs. "for all"
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(11-30-2010, 08:09 PM)Rosarium Wrote:
(11-30-2010, 07:52 PM)Zakhur Wrote: These are just some general reflections.  What do y'all think?

I think there is a reason why it is in Latin. It is to be understood as it was meant when it was written.

In English, "all" or "many" can be used if this understanding is clear, and "many" is the most literal and most used, prior to certain texts, translation.

I agree.

(11-30-2010, 10:27 PM)Melkite Wrote: Zakhur you don't have to worry to much about it.  Pro multis is a translation from greek which was a translation from aramaic, where at the time of Christ, the words 'for many' euphemistically was used for 'for all.'  If trent's definition is that christ died so that all would have the chance to be saved, but only some would take that chance and receive it, there is nothing contradictory about that with the original syriac.  The only problem is when some people look at the latin as if Jesus were speaking latin at the time and interpreting it as if Christ were implying predestination.  He wasn't, so it doesn't.

I agree.
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Re: The translation of "pro multis" as "for many" vs. "for all" - by Zakhur - 11-30-2010, 11:31 PM



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