The translation of "pro multis" as "for many" vs. "for all"
#14
(12-09-2010, 11:01 PM)NorthernTrad Wrote: "For many" also doesn't go along with the Modernists' program of universal salvation either.  It's not accidental that the words of Christ were changed.  It is also a blasphemy.

The Bible says that Christ died for all: "For there is one God, and one mediator of God and men, the man Christ Jesus: Who gave himself a redemption for all, a testimony in due times." 1 Timothy 2:5-6 Douay Rheims

So what is your definition of blasphemy, exactly?
Reply


Messages In This Thread
Re: The translation of "pro multis" as "for many" vs. "for all" - by Bakuryokuso - 12-12-2010, 05:29 PM



Users browsing this thread: 1 Guest(s)