The translation of "pro multis" as "for many" vs. "for all"
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(12-17-2010, 06:46 PM)ripmarcel Wrote: If my memory serves, there is only one translation of the Holy Bible that has been proclaimed by the Church to be free of error, and that is the Latin Vulgate.

So, when the error-free Vulgate was translated from the Septuagint and the Jewish Old Testament, did St. Jerome correctly translate the errors from the LXX into the Vulgate, or did he correct the errors in the Septuagint before translating?  If he changed the errors, how did he know they were errors to begin with?
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Re: The translation of "pro multis" as "for many" vs. "for all" - by Melkite - 12-17-2010, 07:17 PM



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