The translation of "pro multis" as "for many" vs. "for all"
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(12-18-2010, 10:48 AM)Stubborn Wrote: Melkite, what's your deal?

Trent infallibly declared the Vulgate was free from error. Do you deny the infallibility of Trent?

No, I don't deny it.  What my deal is is it sounds like Trent is saying this perfect vulgate is perfect in isolation.  If it didn't receive its perfection from the sources that preceded it, then the only other perfection it could have received was directly from God.  Since we believe that certain prots are nuts for believing the kjv descended from heaven in perfection, I doubt the infallible trent was implying virtually the same thing about the vulgate.  So, since that's not what trent meant, what then did it mean?. Do you have an answer for that, or is your only answer to question my catholicity for merely daring to ask for clarification?
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Re: The translation of "pro multis" as "for many" vs. "for all" - by Melkite - 12-18-2010, 11:16 AM



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