The translation of "pro multis" as "for many" vs. "for all"
#37
Trent seems clear enough......the Vulgate is free from error in doctrine and morals.

Why worry about what St. Jerome did, did not do or why he did what he did? Bestter to be glad he did what he did and be done with it no?
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Re: The translation of "pro multis" as "for many" vs. "for all" - by Stubborn - 12-18-2010, 11:19 AM



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