Did JP2 excommunicate "ALL" SSPX priests at one point?
#28
(01-05-2012, 05:21 PM)Vetus Ordo Wrote: If Canon Law declares that a faithful in a given situation does not incur excommunication and then the pope comes along and says that such given faithful is indeed excommunicated after all, although the situation is identical as the one envisaged by Canon Law, then I guess there isn't much left of the law that is altogether relevant. If a pope can simply ignore Canon Law at his whim, then I don't see the point. No-one in his right mind believes the excommunications of Abp. Lefebvre and Bp. Castro Mayer to have been valid, much less their logical consequences: the eternal damnation of both these valiant clerics who fought for the faith when the rest of the Church was abandoning it.

The case of these consecrations is hardly the kind of exception that the canons you refer to provide for.  Why would there be a provision in Canon Law that allows people to loophole their way out of having to obey the explicit commands of the pope?  And even if there were, what difference would it make when the pope explicitly affirms the excommunications?  If the automatic excommunications prescribed in Canon Law were not actually incurred due to an exception provided for in the law, but in the pope's judgment they were the proper response, he could just explicitly excommunicate them anyway.  Either way, the result is the same.
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Re: Did JP2 excommunicate "ALL" SSPX priests at one point? - by cgraye - 01-05-2012, 05:36 PM



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