Do we have a duty to help the poor? How do we quantify that?
(02-03-2012, 11:21 AM)Micawber Wrote:
(02-03-2012, 10:56 AM)cgraye Wrote: Parmandur,

Yes, I don't think anyone disputes that.  The question is really whether this translates into a right for the poor to have their needs met, and, in either case, whether it is the government's place to enforce it (redistribution of wealth).  Aquinas seems to say it is not a government's place to do that.  I am particularly thinking about this in terms of health care.  Can we say that health care is a right?  Can we say that a government is right in providing it to all the citizens (setting aside practical considerations of whether this is a good idea)?

I think this is the core of the issue here cgraye; what do you think a right is? 

I like the definition given in the Catholic Enclopedia:

Quote:Right, as a substantive (my right, his right), designates the object of justice. When a person declares he has a right to a thing, he means he has a kind of dominion over such thing, which others are obliged to recognize. Right may therefore be defined as a moral or legal authority to possess, claim, and use a thing as one's own.

The entire article is here:

Unfortunately this doesn't quite answer my question about whether or not a duty implies a right, and, more importantly, WHY.

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Re: Do we have a duty to help the poor? How do we quantify that? - by cgraye - 02-03-2012, 11:50 AM

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