Do we have a duty to help the poor? How do we quantify that?
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(02-03-2012, 03:55 PM)cgraye Wrote:
(02-03-2012, 03:50 PM)Crusading Philologist Wrote: We all seem to be assuming that the state can only legitimately provide those things to which we have a right, but I don't see why this is obvious. The purpose of the state, using that term in its broadest sense, is to promote the common good, not to protect individual rights of dubious existence.

We are talking about that because a lot of people DO say that health care is a right, and as such the government must provide it to all if it can.  Though I am also interested, if the answer is no, in whether or not the government should do that and why.

Well, I would say that it is ultimately a matter of prudence. If government provision of healthcare turned out the be the best way of giving people access to medical treatment, and this had no negative effects that outweighed the good of universal healthcare, then it would be perfectly acceptable for the government to do this. Although, whether or not this is the best method of providing healthcare is obviously a difficult question.
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Re: Do we have a duty to help the poor? How do we quantify that? - by Crusading Philologist - 02-03-2012, 04:18 PM



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