Do we have a duty to help the poor? How do we quantify that?
(02-03-2012, 06:04 PM)rbjmartin Wrote:
(02-03-2012, 05:22 PM)Crusading Philologist Wrote:
(02-03-2012, 04:53 PM)rbjmartin Wrote:
(02-03-2012, 03:50 PM)Crusading Philologist Wrote: We all seem to be assuming that the state can only legitimately provide those things to which we have a right, but I don't see why this is obvious. The purpose of the state, using that term in its broadest sense, is to promote the common good, not to protect individual rights of dubious existence.

Why do you say individual rights are of dubious existence? Life, liberty, and property are reflected in the 10 Commandments.

What is dubious is the use of "common good" as a justification for violating the rights granted by our Creator.

I don't really see any reason to think that natural rights inhere in individuals. The notion that there is some sort of common good between men living in community, on the other hand, seems pretty obvious. 

So our being created in the image and likeness of God does not bestow upon us any natural rights, as individuals beloved by God? That would seem to contradict the Decalogue.

I don't really see rights language in the 10 Commandments.

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Re: Do we have a duty to help the poor? How do we quantify that? - by Crusading Philologist - 02-03-2012, 06:10 PM

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