When was original sin removed from OT saints?
#27
(07-19-2012, 11:59 AM)Stubborn Wrote:
(07-19-2012, 08:07 AM)symphony8 Wrote: I always thought it was when Christ preached to those in hell  ???

Close - -I was taught this is where they all were baptized.

Sacraments are for the living ... the Church has no power or jurisdiction over the dead. Thus, Sacraments do not avail for the dead.

This is why when a person has apparently died, but decay has not obviously set in, the priest can administer Extreme Unction and even give Absolution, but only conditionally ... this condition being "If you be living ...". For one unbaptized who has apparently died, baptism could also be given conditionally. The whole reason for the condition is that the sacrament has no effect on the dead, and thus, without the condition, if truly dead (boday and soul are separated), then the priest commits a sacrilege.

So, the souls in the Limbo of the Fathers could not have been sacramentally baptized ... the divine mandate to baptize (and thus the Sacrament) did not yet exist and none of the souls in Limbo were united to their bodies, so could not have received the sacrament of baptism.

They were sanctified by their faith ... and for many the sign of that faith was circumcision ... but it was not like a Sacrament (working by the mere act itself), but a non-infallible sign of the grace conferred.
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Re: When was original sin removed from OT saints? - by MagisterMusicae - 08-03-2012, 07:40 PM



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