JPII Mistakes and Pastoral Approach
#31
Here we go
Reply
#32
(10-23-2012, 05:58 PM)Crusading Philologist Wrote: You can't honestly think that your quotation from St. Thomas is touching on what was said by Bl. John Paul II, can you? Good Lord.

I'll write a letter to the priest letting him know that he's taken St. Thomas out of context.  Thank you for informing me.

Maybe you can spot more errors in his article?  http://www.traditionalmass.org/articles/article.php?id=33&catname=5
Reply
#33
(10-23-2012, 01:14 PM)Scriptorium Wrote:
(10-23-2012, 11:01 AM)DustinsDad Wrote: Did he ever preach conversion to the one true faith for the salvation of souls, the reality of hell, etc. Or did he by his silence project to the world that we are all ok and on our way to heaven? That our only real job was to make the world...this world...that perfect utopian kingdom of man. Man man man. It was all man man man. I'm ok you're ok cult of man.

You tell me, since you seem to be so educated about his pontificate and doctrine.
Not in anything I've ever seen or heard. If ya have something demonstrating it, please share. I'll sleep better tonight.
Reply
#34
(10-23-2012, 06:03 PM)SouthpawLink Wrote:
(10-23-2012, 05:58 PM)Crusading Philologist Wrote: You can't honestly think that your quotation from St. Thomas is touching on what was said by Bl. John Paul II, can you? Good Lord.

I'll write a letter to the priest letting him know that he's taken St. Thomas out of context.  Thank you for informing me.

Maybe you can spot more errors in his article?  http://www.traditionalmass.org/articles/article.php?id=33&catname=5

I apologize for the brashness of my initial response. Anyway, St. Thomas is arguing against the idea that Christ ought to have assumed human nature in all human beings rather than in one individual. Does it really seem that John Paul II is saying that Christ did in fact assume human nature in all human beings? It seems obvious to me that he is not. The idea that, by his assumption of human nature, there is now some connection between Christ and all human beings seems perfectly orthodox to me. After all, isn't it assumed in St. Anselm's theory of the atonement or in the claim that "God became man so that men might become gods"? If the incarnation did not establish some sort of relationship between Christ and his fellow human beings, then it would seem that the whole thing was pretty pointless. How could Christ have paid the debt of all mankind?
Reply
#35
We're trying to figure out precisely in what sense Christ united Himself with all men.  The Holy Father states that the Son is united to each man forever and has redeemed all of us.  Actually, only those who die in the state of grace are redeemed; indeed, St. Paul says that we're born as children of wrath.  Christ died for all of us, but the graces merited by Him will not be applied to all.  And how is Christ united to souls in hell (for the encyclical states that he's united to all of us "forever")?
Reply




Users browsing this thread: 1 Guest(s)