nihil obstat and Imprimatur
#1
I have a book that has the Imprimatur from the local Bishop and another Imprimatur for the translation but no Nihil Obstat. I saw several other books like this. I am wondering why do they only have of them, especially since the Imprimatur is the final one? the books contain private revelations- what does the imprimatur mean in this case? thanks!
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#2
I'm not so sure they mean anything anymore,i mean, I've seen plenty of books with the nihil obstat and the imprimatur that at best water down the Faith. The way i see it they have become meaningless, not that it was ever infallible anyway...
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#3
The bishop does not normally read the book himself, but appoints someone (the "censor librorum")  to read it and advise him.  It the censor says the book contains no errors relating to faith or morals, he declares that it can be printed ('nihil obstat = Nothing stands in the way), and the bishops issues his imprimatur ("Let it be printed").  If the bishop reads it himself instead of delegating the task to another, there is no "nihil obstat". 
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#4
And fewer things need an imprimatur now than before.
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#5
Thanks! So if there's an Imprimatur but no Nihil Obstat, does that mean that maybe the Bishop read it himself? it was the same Bishop as where it was published. The book  in question is not liberal at all though Smile

also, do private revelations need no more than this, for us to read them? I mean only a few have been "accepted by the Church" formally, like Fatima - but others might have an Imprimatur. What about those? I'm not asking about the others right now cause that's a whole new discussion, but just private revelations that have an Imprimatur but nothing else has been said on them. thanks Smile
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#6
(07-11-2013, 12:38 PM)little_flower10 Wrote: I have a book that has the Imprimatur from the local Bishop and another Imprimatur for the translation but no Nihil Obstat. I saw several other books like this. I am wondering why do they only have of them, especially since the Imprimatur is the final one? the books contain private revelations- what does the imprimatur mean in this case? thanks!

What book is it, if you don't mind my asking? The requirements of prior censorship from the 1983 code:

"Can. 823 §1. In order to preserve the integrity of the truths of faith and morals, the pastors of the Church have the duty and right to be watchful so that no harm is done to the faith or morals of the Christian faithful through writings or the use of instruments of social communication. They also have the duty and right to demand that writings to be published by the Christian faithful which touch upon faith or morals be submitted to their judgment and have the duty and right to condemn writings which harm correct faith or good morals.

§2. Bishops, individually or gathered in particular councils or conferences of bishops, have the duty and right mentioned in §1 with regard to the Christian faithful entrusted to their care; the supreme authority of the Church, however, has this duty and right with regard to the entire people of God.

Can. 824 §1. Unless it is established otherwise, the local ordinary whose permission or approval to publish books must be sought according to the canons of this title is the proper local ordinary of the author or the ordinary of the place where the books are published."


http://www.vatican.va/archive/ENG1104/__P2Q.HTM
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