Delicate question about sexuality (warning: graphic language)
#26
(04-16-2018, 04:03 PM)havok579257 Wrote:
(04-16-2018, 03:40 PM)Ludovicus Wrote:
Quote:If you have already ejaculated into your wife's vagina and afterwards she takes your penis into her mouth and gets some residual semen in her mouth, that is all right as long as you do not ejaculate again into her mouth.

Does anyone else agree with this?

Please, let me know your opinion about the subject of this thread. It would be very helpful.

Yes that would be correct.  Although the thing to remember is for the couple this would in essence be another sexual act and would require the man to finish again the right way.  If he can't because he tried but it was to soon, then no fault.  Although if he knows he won't be able to again or is just using it for pleasure with no intent to climax then I think it would be a sin.  Since every time a couple has sex the man must finish the proper way and the couple must always attempt for the man to finish every time they start sex.  Sometimes it doesn't happen but that's not because the couple makes it not happen.  I would just look at it that every time a man finishes the sex act for him is finished and if continues on then it would be a new sex act for him and he would be required to finish a second time.  The women is not held to this since her orgasm is not directly tied to procreation and a women can have no or multiple orgasms in the course of one completed sex act.

Thank you, Havok579257.

Quote:Although the thing to remember is for the couple this would in essence be another sexual act and would require the man to finish again the right way. [...] Although if he knows he won't be able to again or is just using it for pleasure with no intent to climax then I think it would be a sin. [...] I would just look at it that every time a man finishes the sex act for him is finished and if continues on then it would be a new sex act for him and he would be required to finish a second time.

Your reasoning is coherent and interesting.

However, if it is not a new marital act (or sex act), it could be considered as an imperfect act and, in this case, it would not be illicit. I am just wondering. Maybe the principle of imperfect acts cannot be applied here.
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RE: Delicate question about sexuality (warning: graphic language) - by Ludovicus - 04-16-2018, 05:18 PM



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