Delicate question about sexuality (warning: graphic language)
(04-19-2018, 06:56 AM)VoxClamantis Wrote:
Austenbosten Wrote:So my response would be that female orgasm is not necessary to achieve proper end of the marital act.

You have to have a woman to have sex with in order to engage in the marital act (which also has a unitive purpose), and few women will marry a man who doesn't care whether or not women have orgasms. Such a man also likely has a higher risk of enduring wifely infidelity if married, too.

You are taking far more into what I said than what I plainly said. A woman does not always orgasm during or after intercourse. However just because she doesn't orgasm doesn't mean the proper end of the marital act hasn't been achieved, otherwise it would be a grave sin to have intercourse without the female achieving orgasm.

There is a unitive purpose, but it is subsided to the primary which is procreation. Hence sex open to life but without pleasure can still be licit, but sex in the opposite is a grave sin.

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RE: Delicate question about sexuality (warning: graphic language) - by austenbosten - 04-19-2018, 07:03 AM

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