Delicate question about sexuality (warning: graphic language)
#56
(04-19-2018, 09:29 AM)havok579257 Wrote: Sex talks always seem to get to this point.  A women's orgasm is not tied to procreation so the women doesn't  need to orgasm.  Why do some men always try to reach the conclusion that they don't have to give their wife and orgasm.

It would be a sin for a man to not attempt to give his wife an orgasm.  Cause if he doesn't he is putting the women in a near  occasion of sin.  He is getting h her aroused and then leaves her hanging .  This could very well lead her to commit sin with another or herself or not be unnative during sex and closed off.  The sin would be on the man also since he put his wife in that situation .   Also what kind of man is any husband who ignores his wife's orgasm and just focuses on his own since his is directly tied to life.

That is kinda the point I am trying to make. Women do not need to orgasm in order for the act to be licit. However, should the woman desire to have an orgasm, it should be up to the husband to give her one, whether through intercourse, or manual stimulation before or immediately after. To make the woman stimulate herself to orgasm to me is forcing her to masturbate, which not only is the husband culpable in that sin, but he is also sinning against charity.

A wife who gives her husband one of the most pleasurable feelings during one of the highest expressions of love, should not be expected to "rub herself out" while the husband walks off to go make himself a sandwich.

Some are saying it's okay for the woman to do that herself, I argue in the negative.
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RE: Delicate question about sexuality (warning: graphic language) - by austenbosten - 04-19-2018, 01:14 PM



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