Question on Jeremias and John the Baptist being sinless
#4
(12-19-2019, 11:34 PM)Zedta Wrote: Interesting, since both predated Holy Baptism and until Christ was Cruscified, Heaven was closed and only The Bosom of Abraham held those who died under the Law. 
Additionally, only The Blessed Virgin was ever addressed as being "Full of Grace", as in being technically sinless. So, these other guys, predating The BVM, how could they be sinless?

Just curious.
I have an awful memory and can't remember the various podcasts I've heard this on, so I was kind of limited to making a vague paraphrase(sinless was the best word I could think of, though I should have assumed and made clear it wasn't in an absolute sense).   It could be in reference to actual sins(though probably not in those in those terms), or simply referring to the fact that both saints were sanctified in the womb.  As far as I can tell there may or may not be anything resembling that in the Council at all.  Thus, I have decided to see if you fine folks on the fisheaters forum might have information on this.
My word choices are based on sound, not meaning.

Yes, that defeats the purpose of language.
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RE: Question on Jeremias and John the Baptist being sinless - by MacPasquale - 12-20-2019, 12:04 AM



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