In your opinion, is this marriage valid in the eyes of the Catholic Church?
(12-01-2020, 04:12 PM)yablabo Wrote: My intention is not to be unkind to you, sir, but I did not post a "legal definition" of the word malice.  I posted attributes which "legally determine" malice.

Additionally, a lie is never just or excused as every lie is an INTRINSIC evil (obviously either light or grave dependent upon the subject).  It is evil by the nature, not by the extrinsic components of the human act (i.e., intention and circumstance).  Therefore, there is never vitiation of the malice of a lie.

Your pursuit seems to be to make the cowardice which precedes the lie the factor which determines whether the lie was malicious or not.  All lies are malicious and come from Satan, the father of lies.  In fact, your conjecture pushes one to consider that if the man was presenting himself before the altar, having deceived his fiancée by malice, in grave fear of undoing potential plans for a marriage, could not validly consent himself as he would be in that case not approaching the sacrament freely and without coercion.

In post #2 of this thread, you included the text of Can. 1098, which states in part that "[a] person contracts invalidly who enters into a marriage deceived by malice...," and unequivocally concluded that the woman had been "deceived by malice" and thus the marriage was clearly invalid. 

However, that Canon makes a distinction between simply being "deceived" (which is a lie) and "deceived by malice..." (which would be by a malicious lie).  If there is no distinction between the two, then there would be no need to include the term "by malice" in the Canon.  But it is there.  In that regard, and contrary to what you assert above, a simple lie (while I will agree is evil) is not enough to invalidate the marriage under the Canon you yourself cited and relied upon.
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RE: In your opinion, is this marriage valid in the eyes of the Catholic Church? - by Bonaventure - 12-01-2020, 04:29 PM

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